I have a doubt about this exercise, that asks if the MCT apply. I think it does, 'cause the hypothesis holds. But I'm not completly sure about it. Can you give me a hint about how to prove it?
2026-05-03 18:27:34.1777832854
Does the Monotone Convergence Theorem apply?
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Remember that what you need is:
$f \ge f_n \ge 0$, for all $n \in \Bbb N$.
$(f_n)_n \uparrow$.
$f_n \to f$ in the pointwise sense.
So MCT is applicable in this situation.