All of quaternions are, from what I understand, defined simply by $$\newcommand{\i}{\mathrm{i}} \newcommand{\j}{\mathrm{j}} \newcommand{\k}{\mathrm{k}} \i^2=\j^2=\k^2=\i\j\k=-1$$ It is known that quaternion multiplication is not commutative. Does this follow directly from the definition? I suspect this might could be proven via contradiction.
Additionally, the quaternion multiplication (Hamilton product) formula is downright disgusting. This makes the proof all the more daunting.
How should I go about deriving the non-commutativity?
Yes, it does (assuming that the algebra is not trivial, i.e. $1 \ne 0$).
$i - jk = - i^2(i-jk) = -i(i^2 - ijk) = -i(-1 - (-1)) = 0$ so $i = jk$.
Similarly $ k - ij = - (k - ij)k^2 = - (k^2 - ijk) k = 0$ so $ij = k$.
Then $ik = - i j^2 k = - (ij)(jk) = -ki$. So either $ik = 0$ or $i$ and $k$ don't commute. But if $ik = 0$, $ijk = -1 \ne 0 = jik $, so $i$ and $j$ can't commute.