Does the given property hold in a group. If yes, why?
$$\forall x\exists y\forall z : x*y*z=e; \quad x,y,z\in G$$
It points out:
- all elements (given by $z$ above) have unique inverse (given by $xy = z^{-1}$ above).
- Set of inverse of elements of group = set of group elements.
- Each row has the complete set.
Can use left cancellation to show row elements are unique, as given two entries in group table: $ab = ac \implies b=c$.
Similarly, for uniqueness of column elements can use right-cancellation. There $ba= ca\implies a=c$.
But, that is not the correct approach, as need to first find reason for #1.
The stated property $$\forall x \exists y\forall z : x*y*z = e$$ is true if and only if $G = \{e\}$ is the trivial group.
Set $x = e$. Then the question is if there is a $y$ with $y*z = e$ for all $z$. Now $z = y^{-1}$ is uniquely determined by $y$, so the property is wrong as soon as $G$ contains $2$ different elements.
Addition In the comments, the alternative property $$\forall x\forall z\exists y: x*y*z = e$$ has been discussed. The crucial difference to the original one is that now $y$ may be specified after $z$ has been fixed, so we can pick $y$ depending on $x$ and $z$ (and not only depending on $x$ as before). Consequently, the alternative property is softer than the original one. Indeed, it is true for all groups $G$ (setting $y = x^{-1} z^{-1}$).