Let $f:[0, 1] \to [0, \infty)$ be a continuous function such that $f(1)=0$. Does the sequence $\displaystyle g_n(t)=\int_0^1 \frac{t f(\sqrt[n]{x})}{1+t f(\sqrt[n]{x})} dx$ converge uniformly on $[0, \infty)$?
I dealt with the pointwise convergence by using DCT: if we denote $u_n(t, x)=\frac{t f(\sqrt[n]{x})}{1+t f(\sqrt[n]{x})}$, then for every $t\in [0, \infty)$ we will have $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty}u_n(t, x)=0$ for $x\in (0, 1]$ and $|u_n(t, x)|\le 1$ for $x\in [0, 1]$ and $t\in [0, \infty)$, so we may use DCT to conclude that $\displaystyle \lim{n\to \infty}g_n(t)=0$ for every $t\in [0, \infty)$.
However, I want to know if this convergence is uniform. I tried looking at $\displaystyle \sup_{t\in [0, \infty)}g_n(t)$, but I couldn't make any progress.
No.
The convergence is not uniform.
Take the function $f(x)=1-x,$ then
$$\sup_{t \in [0,+\infty)}|g_n(t)|=1$$
Indeed if you fix and $n \in \Bbb{N}$ then $\lim_{k \to +\infty}g_n(k) \to 1 $ from DCT thus $$\sup_{t \geq 0}|g_n(t)| \geq \sup_{k \in \Bbb{N}}|g_n(t)|=1$$