Does the series converge ?
My attempt:
$$\frac{\ln(n^{n})}{n!} = \frac{n \, \ln(n)}{(n-1)!} $$ and we known $\forall x \geqslant 0$, $$\ln(1+x)\leqslant x$$ and $$ \ln(n) = \ln(1+(n-1)) \leqslant n -1.$$
Does the series converge ?
My attempt:
$$\frac{\ln(n^{n})}{n!} = \frac{n \, \ln(n)}{(n-1)!} $$ and we known $\forall x \geqslant 0$, $$\ln(1+x)\leqslant x$$ and $$ \ln(n) = \ln(1+(n-1)) \leqslant n -1.$$
$$\ln\dfrac{n^n}{n!}=-n\cdot\dfrac1n\sum_{r=1}^n\ln\dfrac rn$$
Now $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac1n\sum_{r=1}^n\ln\dfrac rn=\int_0^1\ln x\ dx$$