Does this definition of the Fourier intensity measure make sense?

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Let $\epsilon_n$ be a sequence in $\{-1,1\}^{\mathbb Z_+}$. EDIT: to make the question easier, assume that $\epsilon_n$ is just the Thue-Morse sequence with symbols $1$ and $-1$.

We define partial Fourier amplitudes

$$G_N(q)=\sum_{1\leq n\leq N} \epsilon_n \exp(inq)$$

and the corresponding intensities

$$S_N(q)=\frac{1}{N}|G_N(q)|^2$$

Does the limit

$$d\mu(q)=\lim_{N\to\infty} \left[ S_N(q) \frac{dq}{2\pi}\right]$$

make sense? How do we prove rigorously that it exists?

For context, this definition of $d\mu(q)$ (the Fourier intenstiy measure) comes from (2.3) in the following paper:

Luck, J. M. "Cantor spectra and scaling of gap widths in deterministic aperiodic systems." Physical Review B 39, no. 9 (1989): 5834.

This paper can be found here (paywalled)