I have the following system of trig equation. I was wondering if this system has a solution or not. Mathematica doesn't solve it but I think it is very easy to solve unless I am missing something.
It is intended to solve it for L.
$\alpha_1 = \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{-\omega\ L}{2})$
$\alpha_1 = \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2})$
What normally I do is to put:
$\alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{-\omega\ L}{2}) = - \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2})$
And then I will have two equations:
$\alpha_1 = -\alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2})$
$\alpha_1 = \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2})$
And then:
$-\alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2}) = \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2}) $
$2\ \alpha_2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2}) =0 $
And since my $\alpha_2$ is not zero, as $\alpha_1$ wasn't, therefore:
$2\ Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2}) =0 $
Consequently:
$Tan(\frac{\omega\ L}{2}) =0 $
$\frac{\omega\ L}{2} = n \pi $
If $\omega$ is a number, then:
$L = \frac{2\ n\ \pi}{\omega}$
If the solution is correct, why Mathematica doesn't solve it? If it is not, so...
Thanks in advance
If $\alpha_2=0$ then $\alpha_1=0$ and $L$ can be anyone.
If $\alpha_2 \ne 0$ and $\alpha_1=0$ then $\tan(-wL/2)=\tan(wL/2)=0 \Rightarrow wL/2=k\pi \Rightarrow L=2k\pi/w$ if $w \ne 0$, if not, $L$ can be anyone.
If $\alpha_1.\alpha_2 \ne 0$ then $\alpha_1/\alpha_2=\tan(-wL/2)=\tan(wL/2)$ but $\tan(x)$ is a odd function so, $2\tan(wL/2)=0 \Rightarrow wL/2=k\pi \Rightarrow L=2k\pi/w$