I am wondering about the following: Does $X_n\overset{a.s.}{\to}X$ and $ \mathbf{E}(X_n^2) \to \alpha$ imply $\mathbf{E}(X^2) = \alpha$? I do not a priori know whether or not $X\in\mathcal{L}^2$. I think this is true and that the argument should be fairly simple but I cannot figure it out... I tried to do something like the following: \begin{equation} \mathbf{E}(X - \alpha)^2 \leq \mathbf{E} (X-X_n)^2 +\mathbf{E}(\alpha -X_n)^2 . \end{equation} Now the last term becomes arbitrarily small when we let $n$ become large. Also, \begin{equation} \mathbf{E} (X-X_n)^2 \leq \mathbf{E}(X-X_n)^2 \mathbf{1}_{\{ |X-X_n|> \sqrt{\epsilon} \}}+ \epsilon \mathbf{P}( |X-X_n|\leq \sqrt{\epsilon}). \end{equation} Can I reasonable continue from here?
Also, if $\mathbf{E}(X - \alpha)^2$ is indeed $0$, then apparently the conditions I have imply that $X$ is a.s. a constant. This seems like an overly strong result so I am suspicious.
Thanks in advance for any clarification.
Not true. On $(0,1)$ with Lebesgue measure let $X_n(t)=\sqrt n$ for $t\leq \frac 1 n$ and $0$ for $t >\frac 1 n$. Let $X=0$. Then $X_n \to X$ at every point, $EX_n^{2}=1$ for all $n$ but $EX^{2}=0$.