I heard that Euler product is defined where s>1(real number). $$\zeta(s) =\prod_{p=prime} (1 - p^{-s})^{-1}$$ but, Why? Why it couldn't be defined where s is complex number?
2026-03-25 17:37:56.1774460276
Domain of Euler product
38 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in EULER-PRODUCT
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