Why is the following equality true ?
$$\sum\limits_{h,k\atop p|hk\implies p\le X}\frac{\mu(h)\mu(k)}{h\cdot k}(h,k)=\prod\limits_{p\le X}\left(1-\frac1p\right)$$
The notation $p|hk\implies p\le X$ means that $h,k$ are composed of primes below $X$ and $(h,k)$ is the gcd of the numbers
Maybe it is related to euler-phi function ?
Incomplete answer. It is related to Euler's $\phi$ function because $$\frac{\phi(n)}{n}=\sum\limits_{d \mid n}\frac{\mu(d)}{d} \tag{1}$$ Now, if $n=\prod\limits_{p\leq X}p$ (aka primorial) then $$\frac{\phi(n)}{n}=\prod\limits_{p\leq X}\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)$$ and $(1)$ becomes $$ \prod\limits_{p\leq X}\left(1-\frac{1}{p}\right)=\sum\limits_{d \space \mid \prod\limits_{p\leq X}p}\frac{\mu(d)}{d} \tag{2}$$ Now, $\mu(d)$ is multiplicative, which means that if $d=h\cdot k$ and $\gcd(h,k)=1$ then $\frac{\mu(d)}{d}=\frac{\mu(h\cdot k)}{h\cdot k}=\frac{\mu(h)\mu(k)}{h\cdot k}=\frac{\mu(h)\mu(k)}{h\cdot k}\gcd(h,k)$.
However, if $d=h\cdot k$ and $\gcd(h,k)=t>1$ then $t^2 \mid d$ and from the definition $\mu(d)=0$.