As we needed an axiom to take the supremum of the finite ordinals, how are we allowed without another axiom to take the supremum of the countable ordinals?
2026-03-29 20:09:44.1774814984
Don't we need an axiom for $\omega_1$?
52 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in ELEMENTARY-SET-THEORY
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