Recently, I stumbled upon what I believe to be a new representation of $\zeta(\sigma+i t)^b$ by chance, and thus have no proof of it, and I am wondering if it is possible to prove.
Let $\eta (s) = \zeta (s) (1-2^{1-s})$ denote the Dirichlet eta function, where $\zeta$ is the Riemann zeta function and $s = \sigma + i t$.
Motivation: To motivative the potential usefulness of this representation, notice that $\zeta$ is transformed from taking a complex argument, to a real argument, allowing safer manipulations with it, as log singularities are no longer as major of an issue. I've had Mathematica numerically verify the conjecture on a few hundred combinations of $\sigma, t$, and $b$, each time producing the correct values- as far as I can tell, it even seems to behave appropriately near $\zeta$ zeros, from approaching the first few zeros, above and below the real line, from all directions.
$\forall \sigma, t, b \in \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$: $$\eta (s)^b-1=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty}\cos(\sqrt{t}x e^{i \pi/4})\cos(x y)\left(\eta(\sigma+y^2)^b-1\right)\,dy\,dx$$
Is it possible to prove/disprove this representation?
A suggestion by @DinosaurEgg was the fact that a Fourier inversion formula indicates: $$f(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cos \left(y\left(x-t\right)\right) f(x) \, dx \, dy$$ which for even functions can be written as $$f(t) = \frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos \left( x y \right) \cos \left( y t\right) f(x) \, dx \, dy$$
However, to my knowledge, Fourier inversion only generally holds for functions $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{C}$ so perhaps the Paley-Wiener theorem is at play here to allow my $\eta$ representation to hold, however, I’m not sure how to apply it here.
With $\sigma > -2$, $H(y)=\eta(\sigma+y^2)^b-1$ is Schwartz on the real line so we can look at its inverse Fourier transform, which is Schwartz again $$h(x)=\frac1{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{i xy} H(y)dy$$
And for all $u\in \Bbb{R}$
$$H(u) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-i x u}h(x)dx\tag{1}$$
When $\color{red}{b\text{ is an integer}}$, $H$ is entire and Schwartz on every horizontal line. The Cauchy integral theorem gives that for any $r$ $$h(x)=\frac1{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{i x(y+ir)} H(y+ir)dy$$ from which $$|h(x)|\le e^{-r |x|} C_r, \qquad C_r=\int_{-\infty}^\infty (|H(y+ir)|+|H(y-ir)|)dy$$ This implies that there won't be any problem in continuing $(1)$ analytically to $\color{red}{\text{ every } u\in \Bbb{C}}$, obtaining $$\forall u\in \Bbb{C}, \qquad H(u)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-i x u}h(x)dx$$ With $u=\sqrt{it}$ it gives the formula in your question.
When $b$ is not an integer, we can only do the Cauchy integral theorem up to $r = \sqrt{2+\sigma}$, so that $(1)$ stays convergent and valid only for $|\Im(u)|\le \sqrt{2+\sigma}$.