I have been trying to prove $$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(m+n)^2}=\infty $$
I tried interchanging the sums, but the problem essentially same. I am also aware that: For $a_{m,n}\in [0,\infty]$ $$ \sum_{m=1}^\infty\bigg(\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_{m,n}\bigg)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_{\psi(k)} $$ where $\psi:\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$ is a bijection. I could not find a way an appropriate $\psi$ to show that the latter one diverges. Any help is appreciated!
$$\sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(m+n)^2}\geq \sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^m\frac{1}{(m+n)^2}\geq\sum_{m=1}^\infty\sum_{n=1}^m\frac{1}{(2m)^2}=\sum_{m=1}^\infty\frac{1}{4m}$$