Please refer to the question in the given link.
The question already has an answer here
An element is integral iff its minimal polynomial has integral coefficients.
My question is ---
Here, $A$ is integrally closed in $K$. And $\beta_i$'s $\in \bar{K}$. Don't we have to show that $\beta_i$'s $\in K$ to show they belong to $A$? Because $A$ is integrally closed in $K$ not in $\bar{K}$.
Thank you.
Here, $\beta_i$'s belong to $\bar{K}$ which are integral over $A$. So, coefficients of $p(x)$ are integral over $A$. But the coefficients of $p(x)$ belong to $K$. So, coefficients of $p(x)$ belong to $A$ as $A$ is integrally closed in $K$. Hence, $p(x)\in A[x]$.