I have normally distributed $X\sim\mathcal{N}(0, 1)$, and I want to compute \begin{equation*} \mathbb{E}[1/(1+e^X)] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{e^{-x^2/2}/\sqrt{2\pi}}{1+e^x} dx \end{equation*}
I found numerically (and confirmed with Mathematica) that $\mathbb{E}[1/(1+e^X)] = 1/2$; this result continues to hold for arbitrary variances but breaks down once I select non-zero mean for $X$.
How can I prove this result? The integration trick to use is not jumping out to me.
\begin{equation} \frac{2}{1+e^X} = 1 + \frac{1-e^X}{1+e^X} = 1 - \tanh(X/2) \end{equation} Hyperbolic tangent is odd, hence the expected is $0$ if mean of $X$ is $0$.