I was given this question in class today, $$y’’ -\frac{(y’)^2}{y}=y.$$ I got to $$ y\cdot y’’ -(y’)^2 -y^2 =0$$ But I mean I’m lost. I’m sure it’s a quick computation.
2026-03-27 21:05:27.1774645527
Easiest way to solve D.E.
77 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
3
$$y’’ -\frac{(y’)^2}{y}=y.$$ $$\dfrac {y’’y -{(y’)^2}}{y^2}=1$$ Then use $$\frac {f'g-fg'}{g^2}=\left (\frac {f}{g} \right )'$$ With $f=y'$ and $g=y$ $$\implies \left (\frac {y'}{y} \right )'=1$$ Integrate.