I think I'm having a serious misunderstanding about differential equations, solutions to them, and what a directional slope field is.
From what I understand, if you have a differential equation like $\frac{dy}{dx} = y\cos{y}$, you can fill a graph with tiny slopes for each $(x,y)$ point. If you follow any path of slopes, you'll get a line. The equation of that line is a solution to the differential equation $\frac{dy}{dx} = y\cos{y}$.
One of the equilibrium points for this equation is $\frac{\pi}{2}$ (since when $y=\frac{\pi}{2}$, $y\cos{y}=0$). On the directional field, there will be a completely horizontal path of slopes at $y=\frac{\pi}{2}$. Therefore, from my understanding, if I trace that line, I'll get a solution to the differential equation. Tracing that line will get me the line represented by $y=\frac{\pi}{2}$.
How is $y=\frac{\pi}{2}$ a solution to $\frac{dy}{dx} = y\cos{y}$?! How?!
Isn't the derivate of $\frac{\pi}{2}$ just $0$?! What is happening?! I imagined that a solution to this equation would be something more complicated, so that when you took its derivative, it would give $y\cos{y}$. Help!
The equation $dy/dx = y \cos y$ means that if you have a solution $z(x)$, then substituting it to the equation will produce "true", or in other words it becomes equivalence.
So, if $z(x) = \pi/2$, $z'(x) = 0$ and $z \cos z =0$, so it is the solution.
Think of that in the same way how you think about algebraic equations, say $ax^2+bx +c=0$. Substitution of the solution into the equation does not produce a fancy expression, but rather just $0=0$.