So I was asked to compute the integral
$$\iint\limits_{B_R(0)} (e^y+e^{-y})\cos(x) \, d(x,y), \qquad B_R(0):=\{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2\mid x^2+y^2\leq R\}$$
the explicit way and the apparent "easy" way where no calculation is needed.
I did the first part but I fail to see the easy way to compute this.
Can anyone give me a hint? Thanks
Consolidating several comments, the integrand is $2\Re\cos(x+iy)$, so a change to polar coordinates lets us apply the mean value property viz.$$2\int_0^Rrdr\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta\cos(re^{i\theta})=2\int_0^Rrdr\int_0^{2\pi}d\theta1=2\pi R^2.$$As an alternative to the MVP, we can expand $\cos z$ as its Taylor series, using $\int_0^{2\pi}e^{ik\theta}d\theta=2\pi\delta_{k0}$ for $k\in\Bbb Z$.