I'm reading Steenrod's Topology of Fibre Bundles, and on pages 6 and 7, he defines a topological group $G$ and a topological transformation group of a topological space (which I understand to be a verbose way of saying a group action on a topological space). Now, he writes
For any fixed $g$, the map $y\mapsto g\cdot y$ is a homeomorphism of $Y$ onto itself; for it has a continuous inverse $y\mapsto g^{-1}\cdot y$. In this way the [group action] provides a homomorphism of $G$ into the group of homeomorphisms of $Y$.
We shall say that $G$ is effective if $g\cdot y=y$ for all $y$ implies $g=e$. Then $G$ is isomorphic to the group of homeomorphisms of $Y$.
It is this last statement (in bold) that I'm not sure about: it is clear than an effective group action implies the homomorphism from $G$ to the group of homeomorphisms of $Y$ is injective, but it is not at clear to me that this map is surjective.
Any ideas?
You misquoted the book. It actually says
At least that's how it reads in my edition (copyright 1951, ninth printing, 1974).