Consider a sequence of measurable functions $f_{n}:[0,1]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that $f_{n}\rightarrow0$ pointwise almost everywhere. Prove that for every $\epsilon>0$ there exists $A\subset[0,1]$ such that $m(A)<\epsilon$, $f_{n}$ are all integrable on $[0,1]\backslash A$, and $\int_{[0,1]\backslash A}f_{n}\rightarrow0$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$.
The statement I'm trying to prove above is really similar to Egoroff's theorem. I know that the Egoroff's theorem states that if the first part is true, then it is uniformly convergent on $[0,1]\backslash A$. How would this be possible?
Hint: Suppose $f_1,f_2,\dots:[0,1]\to \mathbb R$ are measurable and $\epsilon>0.$ Show there exists a set $B,m(B)<\epsilon,$ such that each $f_n$ is bounded on $[0,1]\setminus B.$
Added later: Here's how to use the hint for the given sequence $f_1,f_2,\dots$ Let $\epsilon>0.$ First we find $B$ as above, with $\epsilon/2$ in place of $\epsilon.$ Second, by Egoroff, we know there is $C$ with $m(C)<\epsilon/2$ such that $f_n\to 0$ uniformly on $[0,1]\setminus C.$
Let $A=B\cup C.$ Then $m(A)<\epsilon.$ On $[0,1]\setminus A,$ each $f_n$ is bounded, and $f_n\to 0$ uniformly. Now on sets of finite measure, such as $[0,1]\setminus A,$ boundedness implies integrability, and uniform convergence implies $L^1$ convergence. Thus we're done, having proved a result stronger than asked for.