The problem that I'm trying to solve is the following:
Let $\pi$ be a permutation of the integers $\left\{1,2,...,n\right\}$. Find the eigenvalues of $A_{\pi}\in\mathcal{L}(\mathbb{C}^n)$ such that $\forall (x_1,...,x_n) \in \mathbb{C}^n: A_{\pi}(x_1,...,x_n)\mapsto(x_{\pi(1)},...,x_{\pi(n)})$.
Now that we're on the same page, I tried to solve it by using a theorem for permutations which says that any for any permutation $\pi$ of a finite number of elements there exists a least integer $m$ such that $\pi^n=e$ (nth composition). Where $e$ is the identity permutation. From there, $$A_{\pi}^m=I$$ With $I$ being the identity operator. By using $A_{\pi}x=\lambda x$ and the conclusion above I arrived at
$$\lambda x= \lambda^{m+1}x = ... = \lambda^{ml+1}x = ...$$ If I use only the two first terms in the equality above I can conclude that one of the eigenvalues is zero, which doesn't seem to make much sense because $A_{-\pi}$ exists, and also that the remaining eigenvalues are in the complex unit circle. In a case where $m=n!$ the number of eigenvalues is greater than the dimension of $\mathbb{C}^n$, which is also another contradiction. I would like to know what I did wrong or overlooking.
Many thanks.
Hints: