Here is a problem from my homework assignment that I am struggling with:
Consider the differential equation $\frac{d^2\phi}{dx^2}+\lambda\phi=0 $.
Determine the eigenvalues $\lambda$ if $\phi$ satisfies the following boundary conditions:
$\phi(a)=0$
$\phi(b)=0$
I have been able to successfully complete this problem with 6 other sets of boundary conditions, but this one is giving me trouble. The question also states we only need to consider $\lambda>1$. Here is what I have done so far:
Because $\lambda>1$, we get our general solution of: $\phi = C_1cos(\sqrt\lambda x)+C_2sin(\sqrt\lambda x)$.
We can plug in our first boundary condition and get:
$\phi(a) = C_1cos(\sqrt\lambda a)+C_2sin(\sqrt\lambda a)=0$
Usually I would solve for $C_1$ or $C_2$ to plug into the second equation, so here I solve for $C_1$:
$C_1=\frac{-C_2 sin(\sqrt\lambda a)}{cos\sqrt\lambda a)}$
Now I substitute $C_1$ in and plug in the $b$ value to get:
$\phi(a) = \frac{-C_2 sin(\sqrt\lambda a)}{cos\sqrt\lambda a)}cos(\sqrt\lambda b)+C_2sin(\sqrt\lambda b)=0$
Now I will factor our $C_2$ to get:
$\phi(a) = C_2[\frac{sin(\sqrt\lambda a)}{cos\sqrt\lambda a)}cos(\sqrt\lambda b)+sin(\sqrt\lambda b)]=0$
Here we assume that $C_2$ cannot equal zero, or we would also get $C_1$ equal to zero, which would give us the trivial solution. Thus we conclude that:
$\frac{sin(\sqrt\lambda a)}{cos\sqrt\lambda a)}cos(\sqrt\lambda b)+sin(\sqrt\lambda b)=0$
And that is as far as I can get....
The back of the book says the answer is: $\lambda = (\frac{n \pi}{b-a})^2$
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks.
Up to a scalar multiple, the eigenfunction $\phi$ satisfying $\phi(a)=0$, $\phi'(a)\ne 0$ is $$ \sin(\sqrt{\lambda}(x-a)). $$ This is an actual eigenfunction iff $\sin(\sqrt{\lambda}(b-a))=0$. Equivalently, $$ \sqrt{\lambda}(b-a)=\pm\pi,\pm 2\pi,\pm 3\pi,\cdots,\\ \lambda = \frac{n^{2}\pi^{2}}{(b-a)^{2}},\;\;\; n=1,2,3,\cdots. $$ $\lambda = 0$ cannot be considered using this method for $\lambda=0$ because $\sin(\sqrt{\lambda}(x-a))\equiv 0$ in that case. The correct solution for $\lambda=0$ is $C(x-a)$, but this function does cannot vanish at $b$. So $\lambda=0$ is not an eigenvalue.