A question in Rotman's Advanded Modern Algebra asks to prove the question in the title. I'm convinced of my proof, but a subquestion asked to prove that $1+1$ is zero, and for this I proceeded on a case by case basis; that is, assuming for the sake of contradiction that $1+1 \ne 0$, given that we now know that the field $F = \{0,1,1+1,a\}$, I proved that this structure cannot be a field.
However, I think this solution is quite ugly and I was wondering if is a nicer but still elementary solution (avoiding the fact that char($F$) = $2$).
PS I'm not sure if this is a suitable question. If it's not, feel free to remove it.
Since there is an odd number of non-zero elements in the field, at least one of them must be its own additive inverse (because those who aren't come in pairs). So let's call that element $a$.
Since $a\ne 0$, it has a multiplicative inverse $a^{-1}$. But then we have $$1 + 1 = a a^{-1} + a a^{-1} = (a+a) a^{-1} = 0 a^{-1} = 0$$
Note that this in turn implies that all elements of the field are their own additive inverse, since $$x+x = 1x + 1x = (1+1)x = 0x = 0$$ Or in short, any finite field with an even number of elements must be of characteristic $2$.