I'm trying to understand the first proof in this page. So we have
$$S=\frac{\pi }{4}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{2k-1}=S_{n}+R_{n}$$
where $S_{n}=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{2k-1}$ and $R_{n}=\sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{k-1}}{2k-1}$. Since the series is alternating we determine
$$0<\mid R_{n}\mid<\frac{1}{2n+1}$$.
Now we assume $S$ is rational. $S_{n}$ is clearly rational so $R_{n}=S-S_{n}$ must be a rational number. So far so good. But i didn't understand the next step. Can you explain it to me?
The referenced article is wrong, so wrong, my god it's wrong.
It says "For if the contrary is true, i.e. if S is rational, then since Sn is a rational fraction, the first of equations (2) says that a rational number S equals a rational number Sn plus, in view of equation (3), a non-vanishing fraction Rn, which is impossible."
This statement is absurd. Here is an obvious counterexample: $\frac12 = \frac13+\frac16$.
To explicate: The rational number $\frac12$ equals a rational number $\frac13$ plus a non-vanishing fraction $\frac16$.
Poor guy.