I want to calculate $$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin\frac1x}{\sin\frac1x}$$ This obviously equals one, but the epsilon delta definition would then be:
For all $\epsilon$>0, there exists a $\delta$>0, such that $$0<|x|<\delta \Rightarrow \Bigg|\frac{\sin\frac1x}{\sin\frac1x}-1\Bigg|<\epsilon$$ But $0<|x|<\delta$ also implies that there exists an x where $\big|\frac1x\big|$ is a multiple of pi, and $\frac{\sin\frac1x}{\sin\frac1x}=\frac00$, which is undefined. Assuming the limit equals one leads to a contradiction. Am I doing something wrong?
Notice that the (natural) domain of the function
$$f(x)=\frac{\sin(1/x)}{\sin(1/x)}$$
is $\operatorname{dom}(f) = \{x\in\mathbb{R} : x \neq 0 \text{ and } \sin(1/x) \neq 0\}$. So, the correct $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ definition of that limit should be as follows:
Of course, this condition is obviously true since $f$ is identically $1$ on its domain.