I'm totally lost. I've been trying to figure this out. This is what I've figured out:
$dy/dx = 1/x$
$y$-intercept $= 1$
So I try to do $y-y_1 = m(x-x_1)+b,$ which I get as $y-1 = 1/x(x-0)+1,$ simplified to $y = 3.$
But I feel like that is totally wrong and well, obviously it isn't even an equation really.
Can someone help me out with this?
Let $(x,\ln x)$ be the point of tangency.
Then the slope of the tangent line is given by $m=\frac{1}{x}$, as you have, and the slope is also given by
$\displaystyle m=\frac{\ln x-1}{x-0}=\frac{\ln x-1}{x}$.
Setting these two expressions equal gives $\ln x-1=1$, so $\ln x=2$, $x=e^2$, and so $m=\frac{1}{e^2}=e^{-2}$.
Therefore the tangent line has equation $y=\frac{1}{e^2}x+1$.