Assume that each of {$f_n : [0, 1] \rightarrow R$} is continuously differentiable
I know that if {$f_n'$} is uniformly bounded, {$f_n$} is equicontinuous.
However, the converse is NOT true.
I want to find this example to show that the converse is NOT true
The reason this is not true is because equicontinuity does not restrict the same variation over the whole domain. The problem is essentially the same as showing that a continuous function need not be uniformly continuous if the domain is not compact. A concrete example is $f_n(x) = f(x) = \frac{1}{1-x}$ for all $n$. The family $\{f_n\}$ is equicontinuous on $[0, 1)$ because $f$ is continuous, but $f'$ is not bounded.