Let $(A, <)$ a arbitrary partially ordered set. ( $<$ is irreflexive and transitive)
These two statements are equivalent:
Every nonempty subset of $A$ that is bounded from above has a supremum in $A$
Every nonempty subset of $A$ that is bounded from below has an infimum in $A$
My attempt:
Let the first statement be true and I will try to prove the second follows.(I suspect the second direction will be pretty much the same)
Let $C\subset A$ be an arbitrary subset of $A$ that is bounded from below. Let $D$ denote the set of all lower bounds of $C$.
So we have $\forall c \in C, \forall d \in D, d < c$.
I have to prove that $D$ has the biggest element(definition of infimum). I know that $D$ is a set that is bounded from above, then it follows that $D$ has a supremum, let's denote it by $S$.
Now, I know, $(\forall d \in D)( d < S \lor d = S)$. But I don't know how to prove that $S\in D$. Because if $S \notin D$ then $S$ doesn't have to be comparable to any $c \in C$ since the set is partially ordered, then $S$ is definitely not the infimum of $C$ which I think it should be.
Thanks in advance!
Suppose $S\not\in D$. Then $S$ is not a lower bound for $C$ and so there exists $c\in C$ such that $c\lt S$. This is impossible because all elements of $c$ are upper bounds for $D$ so $S$ would not be the least upper bound for $D$. This is a contradiction.
Edit: There is a slight problem with this proof due to the fact that the order is a partial order. Thank you to drhab for pointing it out. The fix is simple enough and I can do it without deriving a contradiction.
For any $c\in C$ and any $d\in D$, $d\le c$ so $c$ is an upper bound for $D$. Since $S$ is the least upper bound, $S\le c$. Since this is true for every $c\in C$, $S$ is a lower bound for $C$ and hence, is in $D$.