Clearly,
$$ \xi(s)=\frac{s(s-1)\pi^{\frac{-s}{2}}}{2}\Gamma\left(\frac{s}{2}\right)\zeta(s). $$
Now from various literature, I understand that the order of the $\xi(s)=1$. The problem remains how to show it. The polynomials have the order of $0$, so I believe it is enough to show that the order of $\Gamma\left(\frac{s}{2}\right)$ and $\zeta(s)$ is $1$ for each of the two? I am really struggling with this and I need to establish this for my dissertation.
I know there exists a formula:
An entire function $f$ is said to be of finite order if there exist numbers $a$,$r>0$ such that $$|f(z)|\leq exp(|z|^a)$$ for all $|z|>r$. The infimum of all numbers $a$ for which this inequality holds is called the function order of $f$, denoted $\lambda=\lambda(f)$.
But I have no idea how to use this definition for the gamma or the zeta functions. Thank you for help
$\xi(s)=\xi(1-s)$ and $\xi$ is an entire function. By the integral representation for the $\zeta$ function over the half-plane $\text{Re}(s)>0$ it is clear that $\zeta(s)\ll e^{|s|}$. $s(s-1)$ has order $0$ and $\pi^{s/2}$ has order $1$. By the Weierstrass (or Euler's) product for the $\Gamma$ function, or just by Stirling's inequality, $\Gamma(s)\ll e^{|s|^{1+\varepsilon}}$ over $\text{Re}(s)>0$. It follows that the order of $\xi$ is $\leq 1$. By studying $\xi(s)$ over $\mathbb{R}^+$, it is straightforward to deduce that the order of $\xi$ is exactly $1$, since $\zeta(s)\to 1$ as $s\to +\infty$.