Is it true that for $p\geq 1$ and $f\in L^1(0,t)\cap L^p(0,t)$ $$|\int_{0}^{t}f(x)dx|^{p}\leq p\int_{0}^{t}|f(x)|^pdx$$
for $p=1$ is obvious, but I'm not sure how to show in the case $p>1$.
Is it true that for $p\geq 1$ and $f\in L^1(0,t)\cap L^p(0,t)$ $$|\int_{0}^{t}f(x)dx|^{p}\leq p\int_{0}^{t}|f(x)|^pdx$$
for $p=1$ is obvious, but I'm not sure how to show in the case $p>1$.
Suppose $f(x) = 1$ then the inequality reads $t^p \le pt$ or $t^{p-1} \le p$. Choose $p=2, t>2$.