I'm working on an exercise about the Gamma Function from Euler.
First, $\Gamma (z)= \int_0^\infty e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt$.
Now, if we consider the "similar" function $\int_{\frac{1}{n}}^\infty e^{-t}t^{z-1}dt$, why is this holomorphic in $\mathbb{C}$ for any $n$?
And then, why is $\Gamma (z)$ holomorphic in the right half plane, i.e. $Re(z)>0$?
We know that the integrand is holomorphic and its integral should be holomorphic, too, then, since we can write the integrand as a polynomial which we then integrate. But surely, this is not rigorous enough, or is it?
I'd appreciate help!
-marie
$\Gamma(z)$ is only defined by the integral for $\mathfrak{Re}(z)>0$ because otherwise the integral diverges at the lower bound.
The modified function, for any fixed $n > 0$, is convergent for any $z \in \mathbb{C}$: $$ g_n(z) = \int_{1/n}^\infty t^z \mathrm{e}^{-t} \frac{\mathrm{d} t}{t} $$ However, as $n$ grows, the limit would diverge for $\mathfrak{Re}(z)<0$.
$g_n(z)$ is holomorphic by Looman-Menchoff's theorem. Indeed $g_n(z)$ is uniformly convergent, and hence differentiation and integration operations can be exchanged, allowing to conclude that Cauchy-Riemann equations are verified by $g_n(z)$.