Does the following integral have a closed form :
$$I=\displaystyle\int\limits_0^{\infty}\frac{\ln (1+ax+x^{2})}{1+x^2}dx$$
Where $|a|≤1$ ,
I was trying using Feynman's trick.
Define
$$I(b)=\displaystyle\int\limits_0^{\infty}\frac{\ln (b(1+x^{2})+ax)}{1+x^2}dx$$
Differentiating with respect to $b$ we get :
$$I'(b)=\displaystyle\int\limits_0^{\infty}\frac{1}{b+ax+bx^{2}}dx$$
$$=2\left(\frac{π}{2\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}-\frac{\arctan \left(\frac{a}{\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}\right)}{\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}\right)$$
Known :
$$\displaystyle\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}db=\frac{\log (2 x + \sqrt{-a^2 + 4 x^{2}})}{2}$$
my problem in this integral :
$$\displaystyle\int\limits_0^{1}\frac{\arctan \left(\frac{a}{\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}\right)}{\sqrt{4b^{2}-a^{2}}}db=?$$
Of course here
$$I=I(1)=I(0)+\int\limits_0^{1}I'(b)db$$
$$I(0)=\frac{π\ln a}{2}$$
I already waiting your hints or solution.
The trick to solving this integral is to reduce it to two power series and then evaluate the power series using differential equations. The final answer is
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(1+ax+x^{2}\right)}{1+x^{2}}dx=\left(\frac{1}{2}\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\ln\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{1-\frac{a^{2}}{4}}}{1+\sqrt{1-\frac{a^{2}}{4}}}\right)+\frac{\pi}{2}\ln\left|a\right|-\Delta_{\pi}\mathrm{Cl}_{2}\left(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)\right)$$
Here, $\Delta_h$ is the forward difference operator defined by
$$\Delta_h[f](x)=f(x+h)-f(x)$$
And $\mathrm{Cl}_2(\theta)$ is the SL-type Clausen function, defined by
$$\mathrm{Cl}_2(\varphi)=\int_0^\varphi \ln\left|2\sin\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\right|dx$$
If you want to compute answers to your integral, you can use the fact that
$$\Delta_{\pi}\mathrm{Cl}_{2}\left(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)\right)=-2\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin\left(\left(2k+1\right)\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)\right)}{\left(2k+1\right)^{2}}$$
To begin solving the integral, we substitute $x=\tan(\theta)$ to get that
\begin{align*} I&=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln\left(1+ax+x^{2}\right)}{1+x^{2}}dx\\ &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(\sec^{2}\left(x\right)+a\tan\left(x\right)\right)dx\\ &=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(1+a\sin\left(x\right)\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx-2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx\\ \end{align*}
We can now use the fact that $\sin(2x)=2\sin(x)\cos(x)$ and symmetries in the argument of $\sin(x)$ to get that
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(1+a\sin\left(x\right)\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(1+\frac{a}{2}\sin\left(x\right)\right)dx$$
We will also note that it is very easy to show that
$$2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(\cos\left(x\right)\right)dx=-\pi\ln\left(2\right)$$
We can now substitute these two expressions into where we left off, preparing to expand $\ln(x)$ as a power series, to get that
\begin{align*} I&=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln\left(1+\frac{a}{2}\sin\left(x\right)\right)dx+\pi\ln\left(2\right)\\ &=-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-\frac{a}{2}\sin\left(x\right)\right)^{n}}{n}dx+\pi\ln\left(2\right)\\ &=-\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}}{n}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{n}\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\left(\sin\left(x\right)\right)^{n}dx+\pi\ln\left(2\right) \end{align*}
We can now use the well known result that
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\left(\sin\left(x\right)\right)^{n}dx=\frac{\sqrt{\pi}\Gamma\left(\frac{n+1}{2}\right)}{2\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)}$$
where $\Gamma(x)=(x-1)!$ is the gamma function to get that
\begin{align*} I&=-\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}}{n}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{n}\frac{\Gamma\left(\frac{n+1}{2}\right)}{\Gamma\left(\frac{n}{2}+1\right)}+\pi\ln\left(2\right)\\ &=-\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{4}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{2n}\frac{\Gamma\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right)}{\Gamma\left(n+1\right)}+\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2n+1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{2n+1}\frac{\Gamma\left(n+1\right)}{\Gamma\left(n+1+\frac{1}{2}\right)}+\pi\ln\left(2\right) \end{align*}
Where the last equality was obtained by summing over even/odd numbers. We can now use the Legendre duplication formula, namely
$$\Gamma\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right)=\sqrt{\pi}2^{1-2n}\frac{\Gamma\left(2n\right)}{\Gamma\left(n\right)}$$
to get both of the series in terms of factorials, namely
$$I=-\frac{\pi}{4}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\frac{\left(2n\right)!}{\left(n!\right)^{2}}\left(\frac{a}{4}\right)^{2n}+\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\left(2n+1\right)^{2}}\frac{\left(n!\right)^{2}}{\left(2n\right)!}a^{2n+1}+\pi\ln\left(2\right)$$
The first power series we turn our attention to is
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(2n\right)!}{\left(n!\right)^{2}}x^{n}$$
We can use the fact that
$$\frac{\left(2(n+1)\right)!}{\left((n+1)!\right)^{2}}=\frac{\left(2n\right)!}{\left(n!\right)^{2}}\cdot\left(\frac{4n+2}{n+1}\right)$$
to set up an easily solvable differential equation, which yields
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(2n\right)!}{\left(n!\right)^{2}}x^{n}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-4x}}-1$$
And thus by integrating
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}\frac{\left(2n\right)!}{\left(n!\right)^{2}}x^{n}=\ln\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{1-4x}}{1+\sqrt{1-4x}}\right)-\ln\left(x\right)$$
Substituting back in yields
$$I=-\frac{\pi}{4}\ln\left(\frac{1-\sqrt{1-\frac{a^{2}}{4}}}{1+\sqrt{1-\frac{a^{2}}{4}}}\right)+\frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\left(2n+1\right)^{2}}\frac{\left(n!\right)^{2}}{\left(2n\right)!}a^{2n+1}+\frac{\pi}{2}\ln\left(a\right)$$
Similarly, it can be shown that
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(n!\right)^{2}}{\left(2n\right)!}x^{2n+1}=\frac{4\left(x\sqrt{4-x^{2}}+\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)x^{2}\right)}{\left(4-x^{2}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}}$$
Which upon integrating once yields
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2n+1}\frac{\left(n!\right)^{2}}{\left(2n\right)!}x^{2n+1}=\frac{4\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)}{\sqrt{4-x^{2}}}$$
And then integrating once more and substituting into our equation yields the final solution. If you have any questions about any of the steps, since I skipped over a lot, you can ask me.