I would like to evaluate (using elementary methods if possible) : (for $a>0,\ b>0$)
$$ I_n=\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1}{( a\cos^2x+b\sin^2x)^n} \, dx,\quad \ n=1,2,3,\ldots $$ I thought about using $u=\tan(x)$ or $u=\frac{\pi}{2}-x$ but did not work. wolfram alpha evaluates the indefinite integral but not definite integral???
Hint:Use Feynman’s Trick: differentiate the integral with respect to the parameters $a$ and $b$, and it can be shown that:
$$\frac{\partial {{I}_{n}}}{\partial a}+\frac{\partial {{I}_{n}}}{\partial b}=-n{{I}_{n+1}}$$ This recursion can be re-written alternatively as: $${{I}_{n}}=-\frac{1}{n-1}\left( \frac{\partial {{I}_{n-1}}}{\partial a}+\frac{\partial {{I}_{n-1}}}{\partial b} \right),\quad n=2,3,...$$ and notice that ${{I}_{1}}$ can be evaluated rather easily using $u=\tan \left( x \right)$ to get ${{I}_{1}}=\frac{\pi }{2\sqrt{ab}}$.