Background: I need to find if \begin{cases} \frac{1}{x^2+y^2+z^2}e^{-\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}}}, \text{ }(x,y,z)\neq (0,0,0)\\ 0,\text{ } (x,y,z)=(0,0,0) \end{cases}
Differentiable at $(0,0)$
So I found that the function is continues at (0,0,0) and now I am checking if there are partial derivatives
a. why we must derive by definition?
So I derived by definition and got
$$\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{1}{h^3e^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{h^2}}}}$$
I would use substitution to get to an expression of the form $\frac{t^3}{e^t}$ but I have even and odd powers
\begin{align*} \lim_{h\rightarrow 0^{+}}\dfrac{1}{h^{3}e^{1/h}}&=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{u^{3}}{e^{u}}\\ &=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{3u^{2}}{e^{u}}\\ &=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{6u}{e^{u}}\\ &=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{6}{u}\\ &=0, \end{align*} \begin{align*} \lim_{h\rightarrow 0^{-}}\dfrac{1}{h^{3}e^{-1/h}}&=\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}-\dfrac{u^{3}}{e^{u}}\\ &=-\lim_{u\rightarrow\infty}\dfrac{u^{3}}{e^{u}}\\ &=0. \end{align*}