Evaluate $$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2}$$
So the way I approach it, it by the squeeze theorem
$$\left| \frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2}\right|\leq \frac{2x^2y}{x^2}=2y$$
So $$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\left| \frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2}\right| \leq \lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}2y=0$$
Therefore $$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2}=0$$
But in the answer the author wrote it has a product of two functions, when one is bounded and the other goes to $0$
$$\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2}=\lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}x\cdot\frac{2xy}{x^2+y^2}$$
so $x\to 0$ and $\left| \dfrac{2xy}{x^2+y^2}\right|\leq 1$ why can we say it is bounded by $1$?
Is this is the way? let assume it is bounded by $1$
$$\left| \frac{2xy}{x^2+y^2}\right| \leq 1\iff \frac{2|x||y|}{|x^2|+|y^2|}\leq 1 \iff 2|x||y|\leq |x^2|+|y^2|\iff 0\leq|x|^2-2|x||y|+|y|^2\iff 0\leq (|x|-|y|)^2$$
And this is true for all $x,y$ so it is bounded by $1$?
$x^{2}+y^{2}\geq 2|x|\cdot|y|$, so $\left|\dfrac{2x^{2}y}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\right|\leq \dfrac{2|x|^{2}|y|}{2|x|\cdot|y|}=|x|$ for both $x\ne 0,y\ne 0$, but this inequality is still true either $x=0$ or $y=0$.
Now $|x|\rightarrow 0$ as $(x,y)\rightarrow(0,0)$, so by Squeeze Theorem, $\dfrac{2x^{2}y}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\rightarrow 0$ as $(x,y)\rightarrow(0,0)$.