I want to evaluate
$$\lim _{x\to \pi }\left(\frac{\sin x}{\pi ^2-x^2}\right)$$
without using L'Hopital's rule or Taylor series. My thinking process was something like this: in order to get rid of the undefined state, I need to go from $\sin x$ to $\cos x$. I tried this substitution: $t = \frac{\pi}{2}-x$ which gets me to $\cos t$, but I get:
$$\lim _{x\to -\frac{\pi}{2} }\left(\frac{\cos t}{\pi ^2-(\pi^2-t)}\right)$$
which also evaluates to $0/0$.
Then I tried this:
$\lim _{x\to \pi }\left(\frac{\sin x}{(\pi-x)(\pi+x)}\right) = \lim _{x\to \pi }\left(\frac{\sin x}{(\pi-x)2\pi}\right)$
which also gets me nowhere. The fact that $\sin(\pi-x) = \sin x$ also doesn't help because the substitution would lead to $\sin 0 = 0$.
The correct solution is $\frac{1}{2\pi}$
Can somebody help me?
hint: $\sin x = \sin(\pi - x)$, and $\pi^2 - x^2 = (\pi -x)(\pi + x)$.
Also use $\dfrac{\sin(\pi - x)}{\pi - x} \to 1$ when $x \to \pi$.