$$\oint x\,dx\qquad C:\{x=0,y=0,y=-x+1 \} $$
My attempt:
$$\oint x\,dx=\int_{\uparrow}x\,dx+\int_{\nwarrow}x\,dx+\int_{\rightarrow}x\,dx$$
I don't know what should I do now, all the integral limits are from zero too one?
$$\oint x\,dx\qquad C:\{x=0,y=0,y=-x+1 \} $$
My attempt:
$$\oint x\,dx=\int_{\uparrow}x\,dx+\int_{\nwarrow}x\,dx+\int_{\rightarrow}x\,dx$$
I don't know what should I do now, all the integral limits are from zero too one?
On
The path you are given is closed, and the integrand has rotation zero, i.e it is the gradient of the scalar function $ F(x, y) = \left(\frac{x^2}{2}, 0\right) $. By the gradient theorem, the integral vanishes.
On
Hint Since the contour $C$ is closed, use Green's Theorem to rewrite the contour integral (which, as written, needs to be evaluated in three pieces) as a single (easy) double integral over the region $D$ enclosed by $C$:
$$\oint_C P \, dx + Q \,dy = \iint_D (Q_x - P_y) \,dx\,dy$$
On
Extending StackTD answer, on the x-axis, from (0, 0) to (1, 0) we can take x itself as parameter with y identically 0. Since x goes form 0 to 1, the integral becomes $\int_0^1 xdx= \left[\frac{1}{2}x^2\right]_0^1= \frac{1}{2}$.
On the y-axis, from (0, 1) to (0, 0) we can take y as parameter with x identically 0. Since x is identically 0, dx= 0 and the integral, which contains no "y", is just 0.
On the line x+ y= 1 (same as y= -x+ 1 or x= -y+ 1) from (1, 0) to (0, 1) we can take either x or y as parameter. Using x as parameter we have again $\int xdx$ but now x is going from 1 down to 0 so we have $\int_1^0 xdx= -\int_0^1 dx= -\frac{1}{2}$. Using y as parameter, x= -y+ 1 and dx= -dy so $\int xdx= \int (-y+ 1)(-dy)= \int (y- 1)dy$. Going from (1, 0) to (0, 1), y goes from 0 up to 1 so the integral is $\int_0^1 (y- 1)dy= \left[\frac{1}{2}y^2- y\right]_0^1= \frac{1}{2}- 1= -\frac{1}{2}$. Either way, the integral on x+ y= 1 is -1/2 so the entire integral is 1/2+ 0- 1/2= 0.
The usual orientation is counter-clockwise so the path $C$, a triangle, would consist of the line segments from $(0,0)$ to $(1,0)$, then from $(1,0)$ to $(0,1)$ and finally from $(0,1)$ back to $(0,0)$.
If you really want to explicitly calculate the line integral, you should parametrize each part. With the given curves, that can be done very easily: