Okay, so my book shows (with absolutely no explanation) an equivalency to
$\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} (\frac{1}{2} - \frac{x+2}{2^x})$
, and I have no idea where this came from. From my understanding, telescoping series generally telescope down as a result of combining positives and negatives and may lead to a result of the first term minus the last term in the series ($\infty$ in such as case). I do see a pattern in the sequence once I split into $\frac{k}{2^{k+1}}$ and $\frac{-1}{2^{k+1}}$ but I'm not sure of there being any telescoping in the way the lesson examples show.
-Can someone tell me how $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} (\frac{1}{2} - \frac{x+2}{2^x})$ was obtained, since I have no explanation in the chapter or solution?
$a_k$ is a telescopic term if $a_k$ can be written as $b_{k}-b_{k+1}$. If $a_k=\frac{k-1}{2^k}$, an we find some simple sequence $\{b_k\}_{k\geq 1}$ with such property? It looks reasonable. We may try $b_k=\frac{k}{2^k}$, for instance. $$ b_k-b_{k+1}= \frac{k}{2^k}-\frac{k+1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{k-1}{2^{k+1}}=a_k $$ It works, so $$ \sum_{n=1}^{N}a_n = \sum_{n=1}^{N}(b_{n}-b_{n+1})=b_1-b_{N+1}=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{N+1}{2^{N+1}} $$ and the limit of the RHS as $N\to +\infty$ clearly equals $\frac{1}{2}$.