Here is a nice problem proposed by Cornel Valean
$$ I=\int_0^1\frac{\arctan\left(x\right)}{1-x}\, \ln\left(\frac{2x^2}{1+x^2}\right)\,\mathrm{d}x = -\frac{\pi}{16}\ln^{2}\left(2\right) - \frac{11}{192}\,\pi^{3} + 2\Im\left\{% \text{Li}_{3}\left(\frac{1 + \mathrm{i}}{2}\right)\right\} $$
My Trial: By subbing $x=\frac{1-t}{1+t}$ we have
$$I=\int_0^1\frac{\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\arctan x\right)\ln\left(\frac{(1-x)^2}{1+x^2}\right)}{x(1+x)}dx$$
$$=2\underbrace{\int_0^1\frac{\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\arctan x\right)\ln(1-x)}{x(1+x)}dx}_{x\to (1-x)/(1+x)}-\int_0^1\frac{\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\arctan x\right)\ln(1+x^2)}{x(1+x)}dx$$
$$=2\int_0^1\frac{\arctan x\ln(\frac{2x}{1+x})}{1-x}dx-\int_0^1\frac{\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-\arctan x\right)\ln(1+x^2)}{x(1+x)}dx$$
and got stuck here. Any idea? thanks.
Update: the problem and solution will be part of a new paper soon.
A solution by Cornel Ioan Valean
Let's denote the main integral by $\mathcal{I}$, and then we have
$$\mathcal{I=}\int_0^1\frac{(\pi/4-\arctan((1-x)/(1+x)))\log\left(\frac{2x^2}{1+x^2}\right)}{1-x}\textrm{d}x$$ $$=\underbrace{\frac{\pi}{4}\int_0^1\frac{\log\left(\frac{2x^2}{1+x^2}\right)}{1-x}\textrm{d}x}_{\displaystyle J}- \underbrace{\int_0^1\frac{\arctan((1-x)/(1+x))\log\left(\frac{2x^2}{1+x^2}\right)}{1-x}\textrm{d}x}_{\displaystyle K}. \tag1$$
The integral $J$ easily reduces to known integrals. If we integrate by parts, we get
where the last integral also appears in the book, (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series, page $8$.
For the integral $K$, a bit of magic will be necessary. The first key observation is that
$$K=\Im \biggr\{\int_0^1\frac{\log^2(x (1 + x)/(1 + x^2) + i x (1 - x)/(1 + x^2))}{1-x}\textrm{d}x\biggr\}.$$
Now, we may consider the generalization $$G(a)=\int_0^1\frac{\displaystyle\log^2\left(\frac{ (1+a) x}{1 + a x}\right)}{1- x}\textrm{d}x,$$ and make the variable change $\displaystyle x\mapsto \frac{1-x}{1+a x}$ that leads to $$G(a)=\int_0^1 \frac{\log^2(1-x)}{x}\textrm{d}x-a\int_0^1\frac{\displaystyle\log^2(1-x)}{1+ a x}\textrm{d}x,$$ and letting the variable change $x\mapsto 1-x$ in both integrals, we finally get $$G(a)=\int_0^1 \frac{\log^2(x)}{1-x}\textrm{d}x-\frac{a}{1+a}\int_0^1\frac{\displaystyle\log^2(x)}{1 -a/(1+a) x}\textrm{d}x=2 \zeta(3)-2\operatorname{Li}_3\left(\frac{a}{1+a}\right),$$ where in the calculations we also needed the integral, $\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{a \log^2(x)}{1-a x}\textrm{d}x=2\operatorname{Li}_3(a)$, that appears in a generalized form in the same book, (Almost) Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series, page $4$.
A first note: The variable change $\displaystyle x\mapsto \frac{x}{1+a-ax}$ would work more directly, and no need for a second variable change.
Then, based on the previous result we make the second key observation, $$K=\Im \{G(i)\}.$$
Thus,
At last, combining $(1)$, $(2)$, and $(3)$, we conclude that
End of story
A second note: no software needed for calculating such integrals, or far more advanced ones alike.
Another nice example of an integral calculated by similar means
$$\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x(1+x)}\left(12 \log \left(\frac{(1-x)^2}{1+x^2}\right) \arctan^2(x)-\log ^3\left(\frac{(1-x)^2}{1+x^2}\right)\right) \textrm{d}x$$ $$=\frac{2043 }{64}\zeta (4)+\frac{15}{8} \log ^2(2)\zeta (2)-\frac{1}{2} \log ^4(2)-15 \operatorname{Li}_4\left(\frac{1}{2}\right).$$