On another site, someone asked about proving that
$$ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln^{n}x}{(1-x)^{m}} \, dx = (-1)^{n+m-1} \frac{n!}{(m-1)!} \sum_{j=1}^{m-1} (-1)^{j} s (m-1,j) \zeta(n+1-j), \tag{1} $$
where $n, m \in \mathbb{N}$, $n \ge m$, $m \ge 2$, and $s(m-1,j)$ are the Stirling numbers of the first kind.
My attempt at proving $(1)$:
$$ \begin{align}\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\ln^{n}x}{(1-x)^{m}} \, dx &= \frac{1}{(m-1)!} \int_{0}^{1} \ln^{n} x \sum_{k=m-1}^{\infty} k(k-1) \cdots (k-m+2) \ x^{k-m+1} \ dx \\ &= \frac{1}{(m-1)!} \sum_{k=m-1}^{\infty} k(k-1) \cdots (k-m+2) \int_{0}^{1} x^{k-m+1} \ln^{n} x \, dx \\ &= \frac{1}{(m-1)!} \sum_{k=m-1}^{\infty} k(k-1) \cdots (k-m+2) \frac{(-1)^{n} n!}{(k-m+2)^{n+1}}\\ &= \frac{1}{(m-1)!} \sum_{k=m-1}^{\infty} \sum_{j=0}^{m-1} s(m-1,j) \ k^{j} \ \frac{(-1)^{n} n!}{(k-m+2)^{n+1}} \\ &= (-1)^{n} \frac{n!}{(m-1)!} \sum_{j=0}^{m-1} s(m-1,j) \sum_{k=m-1}^{\infty} \frac{k^{j}}{(k-m+2)^{n+1}} \end{align} $$
But I don't quite see how the last line is equivalent to the right side of $(1)$. (Wolfram Alpha does say they are equivalent for at least a few particular values of $m$ and $n$.)
Substitute $x=e^{-t}$ and get that the integral is equal to
$$(-1)^n \int_0^{\infty} dt \, e^{-t} \frac{t^n}{(1-e^{-t})^m} $$
Now use the expansion
$$(1-y)^{-m} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \binom{m+k-1}{k} y^k$$
and reverse the order of summation and integration to get
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \binom{m+k-1}{k} \int_0^{\infty} dt \, t^n \, e^{-(k+1) t}$$
I then get as the value of the integral:
$$\int_0^1 dx \, \frac{\ln^n{x}}{(1-x)^m} = (-1)^n\, n!\, \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \binom{m+k-1}{k} \frac{1}{(k+1)^{n+1}}$$
Note that when $m=0$, the sum reduces to $1$; every term in the sum save that at $k=0$ is zero.
Note also that this sum gives you the ability to express the integral in terms of a Riemann zeta function for various values of $m$, which will provide the Stirling coefficients.