The question says:
Solve the following line integrals, where $c$ is the circle with radius $1$ centered at the origin, that can be parametrized by $ c : [0,2\pi]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2 : t \mapsto c(t) = (\cos(t),\sin(t))$.
(i) $\;\oint_c x\,dx-y\,dy$
(ii) $\;\oint_c x\,dx+x\,dy$
(iii) $\;\oint_c y\,dx$
(iv) $\;\oint_c dy$
I think I'm supposed to use Green's theorem and solve these integrals as a double integral on the region of a circle, and then use polar coordinate substitution? But I'm not sure I understand how those separate derivatives are supposed to work like in "$x\,\mathrm{d}x-y\,\mathrm{d}y$" for example.
I think the best explanation for this $\mathrm{d}x$ notation is in terms of differential forms, but that may be too advanced, so let's use simpler notions.
Suppose $\gamma:[a,b]\longrightarrow\mathbb{R}^2$ is a continuously differentiable curve and suppose further that $f:U\longrightarrow\mathbb{C}$ is a differentiable function defined on some open neighborhood of the image of $\gamma$ (so, in the case of the circle, it would be defined at least on some thick annular region around the circle). Then if $g$ is any continuous function defined on the image of $\gamma$, we set $$ \int_\gamma g\,\mathrm{d}f = \int_a^b g(\gamma(t)) \nabla\!f(\gamma(t))\cdot\frac{\mathrm{d}\gamma(t)}{\mathrm{d}t}\,\mathrm{d}t $$ What happens if we reparametrize $\gamma$? If $[c,d]$ is another interval and $\phi:[c,d]\longrightarrow [a,b]$ is continuously differentiable with $\phi(c)=a$, $\phi(d)=b$, we have that \begin{align*} \int_c^d \!\!g(\gamma(\phi(s))) \nabla\!f(\gamma(\phi(s)))&\cdot\frac{\mathrm{d}\gamma(\phi(s))}{\mathrm{d}s}\mathrm{d}s=\!\!\int_c^d\!\!g(\gamma(\phi(s))) \nabla\!f(\gamma(\phi(s)))\cdot\frac{\mathrm{d}\gamma}{\mathrm{d}t}\bigg\vert_{t=\phi(s)}\!\frac{\mathrm{d}\phi(s)}{\mathrm{d}s}\mathrm{d}s=\\ &= \int_a^b g(\gamma(t)) \nabla\!f(\gamma(t))\cdot\frac{\mathrm{d}\gamma(t)}{\mathrm{d}t}\,\mathrm{d}t \end{align*} by the change of variables formula, so the integral is unchanged.
Morally speaking, $$ \mathrm{d}f=\nabla\!f(\gamma(t))\cdot\frac{\mathrm{d}\gamma(t)}{\mathrm{d}t}\,\mathrm{d}t $$ The dot product of the gradient with the tangent vector of the curve tells us how much the function $f$ changes when we move infinitesimally along the curve. The integral then just sums all these infinitesimal changes. Now if we have several pairs of functions $g_1, f_1$, $g_2, f_2$, ..., we can just set $$ \int_\gamma g_1\mathrm{d}f_1+g_2\mathrm{d}f_2+ ...=\int_\gamma g_1\mathrm{d}f_1 + \int_\gamma g_2\mathrm{d}f_2+... $$ as a sum of integrals.
Let's examine your example with $x\,\mathrm{d}x-y\,\mathrm{d}y$: we have $x(c(t))=\cos(t)$, $y(c(t))=\sin(t)$, $\nabla x(c(t))=(1,0)$, $\nabla y(c(t))=(0,1)$, $\frac{\mathrm{d}c}{\mathrm{d}t}=(-\sin(t),\cos(t))$. Hence $$ \int_{\mathbb{S}^1}x\,\mathrm{d}x-y\,\mathrm{d}y = \int_0^{2\pi} (-\cos(t)\sin(t)-\sin(t)\cos(t))\,\mathrm{d}t=-\int_0^{2\pi}\sin(2t)\,\mathrm{d}t=0 $$ As for Green's formula, if $\gamma(a)=\gamma(b)$ and $\gamma$ is injective, then your curve bounds a region $D$. The formula is then that for any continuously differentiable $g_1, g_2$ defined on a neighborhood of $D$: $$ \int_\gamma g_1\mathrm{d}x + g_2\mathrm{d}y = \iint_D \bigg(\frac{\partial g_2}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial g_1}{\partial y}\bigg)\,\mathrm{d}x\,\mathrm{d}y $$ Importantly, the curve must be oriented counterclockwise, otherwise there would be a factor of $-1$ in this equality. In the case we just looked at, $g_1=x$ and $g_2=y$, so the partial derivatives entering into the double integral are $0$ and the answer is again $0$, as it should be.