Could anybody show me step by step why the following equality holds? $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{(1+1/x)^{x^2}}{e^x} = e^{-1/2}$$
The most obvious method gives you 1 as an answer, but I understand that only the limit of $(1+1/x)^x$ is $e$, but expression is not actually equal to $e$. And now I am stuck.
Compute the limit of the logarithm of your function: $$ \lim_{x\to\infty}\log\frac{(1+1/x)^{x^2}}{e^x}= \lim_{x\to\infty}(x^2\log(1+1/x)-x) $$ Now set $x=1/t$: $$ \lim_{x\to\infty}(x^2\log(1+1/x)-x)= \lim_{t\to0^+}\frac{\log(1+t)-t}{t^2} $$