In solving a problem, I stumbled upon this simple looking infinite sum: $$\sum\limits_{i=1}^\infty\sum\limits_{j=1}^i \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2}$$ At first it looked solvable, I wrote it down and noted that I could at least write it as: $$\zeta(4)+\zeta(2)+\sum\limits_{i=3}^\infty\sum\limits_{j=2}^{i-1}\frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2}$$ Where $\zeta$ is the Riemann Zeta function.
With that sum, I got stuck. I tried to write down all the remaining "cross terms" in a neater way but this was not succesfull.
This really feels like something solvable. Any hints are really appreciated!
Swapping the order of the summation we get
$$S \equiv \sum_{j=1}^\infty \sum_{i=j}^\infty \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2} = \sum_{j=1}^\infty \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2} - \sum_{j=1}^\infty \sum_{i=1}^{j-1} \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2}$$
Since the $i$'s and $j$'s are dummy variables, we can switch them in the last expression to get that
$$S = \sum_{j=1}^\infty \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2} - \sum_{i=1}^\infty \sum_{j=1}^{i-1} \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2} = \sum_{j=1}^\infty \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^2}\frac{1}{j^2} + \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^4} - S$$
$$\implies 2S = \left(\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^2}\right)^2 + \sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{1}{i^4} = \frac{\pi^4}{36} + \frac{\pi^4}{90}$$
$$\therefore S = \frac{7\pi^4}{360}$$