Consider the following integral: $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{5}} \mathrm{d} x \>.$$
I did the following: Since $-1$ is a pole on the real axis, I took $z_{1}=e^{3\pi/5}$ then constructed an arc between $Rz_{1}$ and $R$ :
$f(e^{2\pi i /5}z)=f(z)$ it follows that : $(1-e^{2pi i/5})\int_{\alpha}f(z)dz + \int_{\beta}f(z)dz = 2\pi i \text{ Res } z_{2} f $ ,
where $\alpha$ is the way along the eral axis, $\beta$ is the way along the arc and $z_{2}=e^{i\pi/5}$
This gives: $\int_{0}^{\infty}...dx = 2\pi i (\frac{e^{2i\pi/5}}{-5})\cdot \frac{1}{(1-e^{2\pi i/5})}$
The real part of the right side in wolframalpha does not give the same result as the left side.
Does anybody see why? Please do tell.
I think you want to use the curve $e^{2\pi i/5}x$ for the inbound curve circling the pole at $e^{\pi i/5}$, which has residue $\frac1{5e^{2\pi i/5}}$.
Because the integral along $|z|=R$ vanishes as $R\to\infty$, we get $$ \left(1-e^{6\pi i/5}\right)\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{5}}\;\mathrm{d}x=2\pi i\frac{1}{5e^{2\pi i/5}} $$ Which gives $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{5}}\;\mathrm{d}x=\frac{2\pi i}{5\left(e^{2\pi i/5}-e^{-2\pi i/5}\right)}=\frac{\pi}{5\sin(2\pi/5)} $$