I am looking for alternate approaches to the question:
Evaluate: $$\lim_{x \to 0 } \frac{1 - \cos(a_1 x)\cos(a_2x)\cos(a_3x)...\cos(a_nx)}{x^2}$$
The way I did it:
Apply L Hopital's Rule:
$$=\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{a_1\sin(a_1x)\cos(a_2x)..... + a_2\cos(a_1x)\sin(a_2x)\cos(a_3x).....}{2x}$$
$$=\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{[a_1\tan(a_1x)+a_2\tan(a_2x) +....][\cos(a_1x)\cos(a_2x).....]}{2x}$$
Now the term in numerator with product of cosines will tend to go to 1, so the limit is equivalent to the limt:
$$=\lim_{x \to 0} \sum_{r=1}^n \frac{a_r\tan(a_rx)}{2x} = \sum_{r=1}^{n} \left( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{a_r\tan(a_rx)}{2x}\right)$$
Now $ \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\tan x}{x}$ is a standard limit equal to$1$.
$$=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{r=1}^{n} a_r^2$$
Using the Taylor series of $\cos x$, we could say $$\cos ax=1-{a^2x^2\over 2}+o(x^2)$$hence $$\cos a_1x\cos a_2x\cdots \cos a_nx=1-{1\over 2}x^2\sum_{i=1}^{n} a_i^2+o(x^2)$$