I've been given to evaluate the limit, $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x + e^{-x} -2}{x^2}$$
Here's my approach to the problem: $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x + e^{-x} -2}{x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^x -1)+(e^{-x} -1)}{x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^x -1)}{x^2}+\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^{-x} -1)}{x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^x -1)}{x}\cdot\frac{1}x+\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^{-x} -1)}{x}\cdot \frac1x$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}x-\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^{-x} -1)}{-x}\cdot \frac1x$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}x-\frac1x$$ $$\implies0$$
But solving using another method, $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x + e^{-x} -2}{x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^x + \dfrac1{e^x} -2}{x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^{2x}-2e^x + 1}{e^x\cdot x^2}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(e^{x}-1)^2}{x^2}\cdot\frac1{e^x}$$ $$\implies\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{e^x}$$ $$\implies 1$$
Why are these two methods giving two different results? I know that the first method is incorrect, but don't actually know what's the mistake. Can anyone help me?
While it is true that that you can break up limits $\lim_\limits{x\to a} f(x) g(x) = \lim_\limits{x\to a} f(x) \lim_\limits{x\to a} g(x)$ and $\lim_\limits{x\to a} f(x) + g(x) = \lim_\limits{x\to a} f(x)+\lim_\limits{x\to a} g(x)$
You can only do it if $\lim_\limits{x\to a} f(x)$ and $\lim_\limits{x\to a} g(x)$ exist and are finite.
Where you have: $\lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {e^x - 1}{x}\frac {1}{x}$ you cannot evaluate the first factor as the limit does not exist for the second factor.
This line is not correct either:
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {(e^x - 1) + (e^{-x}-1)}{x^2}= \lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {(e^x - 1)}{x^2}+ \lim_\limits{x\to 0}\frac {(e^{-x} - 1)}{x^2} $
So, what can you do?
Apply L'Hopital's rule: Since the denominator has an $x^2$ term to it, you are going to need to do it twice.
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {e^x + e^{-x}-2}{x^2} = \lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {e^x + e^{-x}}{2} = 1$
Restate the exponentials as Taylor series: This is very much like applying L'Hopital's rule, at least it is from a theoretical point of view, but once you get the hang of it, I think, it is much easier to do on complicated limits.
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {e^x + e^{-x}-2}{x^2} = \lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {(1 + x + \frac {x^2}{2}) + (1 - x + \frac {x^2}{2}) - 2 + O(x^3)}{x^2} = 1$
Get creative:
When I see $e^x + e^{-x}$ I am thinking $2\cosh x.$ And once in this frame of mind what can I do to get rid of the $-2$ hanging at the end....$e^{x} + e^{-x} - 2 = 2\sinh^2 \frac x2$
$\lim_\limits{x\to 0} \frac {2\sinh^2 \frac {x}{2}}{x^2} = 1$