This is a theorem in Spivak's book "calculus"
Every equation $x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + \dots + a_0 = 0$ has a real root, if $n$ is odd.
However, I think his proof is overly complicated. Therefore, I would like to offer an alternative proof. It would be nice if someone can check if it correct.
Proof: Define $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}: x \mapsto x^n + a_{n-1}x^{n-1} + \dots + a_0$
Then for $x \neq 0$, we have
$$f(x) = x^n(1+ a_{n-1}/x + \dots + a_0/x^n)$$
and we see that $f(x) \to + \infty$ when $x \to +\infty$ and that $f(x)\to - \infty$ when $x \to - \infty$.
Hence, there is $M> 0$ such that $f(M) > 0$ and $f(-M) < 0$.
By applying IVT on $f\vert_{[-M,M]}$, we deduce that there is $x \in [-M,M]$ such that $f(x) = 0$, and this proves the result.
Your proof using IVT is correct, in fact $x \in (-M, M)$.