Let $R$ be a ring and $A,B,C$ be $R$-modules in an exact sequence
$$0\rightarrow A\rightarrow B\rightarrow C\rightarrow 0.$$
Submodules or quotients of finitely generated projective modules are not necesserarily finitely generated and projective.
However, I was wondering if any assertion of the type "$A$ and $B$ are f.g. projective implies that $C$ is f.g. projective" is true (up to permutation of the names) ?
Counterexample: $R=A=B=\mathbb Z$, and the map from $A$ to $B$ is multiplication by 2. Then $C=\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$ is not projective.