The following is from Linear Algebra Done Right, by Sheldon Axler.
$5.37$ $\ $ $\ $ Example $$\pmatrix{8 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 5 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 5}$$ is a diagonal matrix.
$5.37$ $\ $ $\ $ Example $\ $ $\ $ Suppose the matric of an operator $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ with respect to a basis $v_1,v_2,v_3$ of $V$ is the matrix in Example $5.35$ above. Then $$E(8,T)=\operatorname{span}(v_1),\quad E(5,T)=\operatorname{span}(v_2,v_3).$$
I understand that, since this matrix is upper-triangular, the eigenvalues of the transformation are the elements of the diagonal: $8$ and $5$.
So the eigenspace of the transformation corresponding to the eigenvalue $\lambda$ is equivalent to the following null space: $null(T - \lambda I)$.
But this null space would just consist of all the eigenvectors, since $T\mathbf{v} = \lambda \mathbf{v} \rightarrow (T - \lambda I)\mathbf{v} = \mathbf{0}$, right?
But I still don't understand how the author came to the solutions $E(8, T) = \operatorname{span}(v_1)$ and $E(5, T) = \operatorname{span}(v_2, v_3)$?
I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to clarify this.
Note that$$T-8\operatorname{Id}=\begin{pmatrix}0&0&0\\0&-3&0\\0&0&-3\end{pmatrix}.$$Therefore$$T(\alpha_1v_1+\alpha_2v_2+\alpha_3v_3)=0\iff-3\alpha_2v_2-3\alpha_3v_3=0\iff\alpha_2=\alpha_3=0$$and so $\operatorname{null}(T-8\operatorname{Id})=\langle v_1\rangle$. The same argument applies to the other eigenvalue.