I'm trying to find a counter-example for the following statement: "Consider $X$ and $Y$ be any two metric spaces. If $f: X\rightarrow Y $ is a map such that $f$ maps closed balls in $X$ to closed Sets in $Y$ then $f$ is a closed map " I thought about inclusion maps , projection maps, constant maps, but I was unable to think counter example from there. Please help me on how to think of any counter example? I am a beginner in topology and metric spaces.
2026-03-26 04:32:16.1774499536
Example of a map which is not closed but every closed ball maps into closed set
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You can take, for instance, $\arctan\colon\Bbb R\longrightarrow\Bbb R$, with $\Bbb R$ endowed with the usual topology. It is not a closed map, since $\arctan(\Bbb R)=\left(-\frac\pi2,\frac\pi2\right)$. But it maps closed balls into closed sets.